hwl Posted April 30, 2014 Posted April 30, 2014 Suppose we do a constant Jacobian transformation (NOT Lorentz) of an inertial frame. This defines a non-inertial field with a constant metric in which the acceleration vector is NON-ZERO. But this directly contradicts the geodesic-metric equation. According to this equation, the acceleration vector is ZERO, because the metric is constant and so it has zero partial derivatives which make the metric connection zero. Can anyone explain this direct contradiction? Cookie 1
GeoDUDE! Posted May 1, 2014 Posted May 1, 2014 looks like someone wants us to help them with their takehome final.
TakeruK Posted May 1, 2014 Posted May 1, 2014 Hi hwl, The purpose of these forums is to discuss issues relevant to grad school applications and life as a graduate student (academically and socially/personally) and other issues relevant to graduate students (e.g. postdoc job finding etc.). Its purpose is not to answer technical questions about our fields, especially not like the ones you have posted here. This is in part because of the reason I just said (it's not the reason these forums exist) but also for the reason GeoDUDE! mentioned--many schools have "take home final exams" (i.e. the final exam is a long/hard homework problem set) and we don't want to inadvertently help someone cheat on an exam or homework. I am not accusing you of anything, but I hope you understand that when we are on the internet it is hard to determine if a particular question is just because they are curious or because they want someone to do a homework problem for them. Again, I am not accusing you of doing this, but this forum really isn't the right place to ask this type of question. But this doesn't mean that there is no place at all for these types of questions. I suggest that you post your question to this forum instead: http://www.physicsforums.com/. They have specific policies about posting and receiving homework help and it would be a good idea to read through their policies before posting your question!
hwl Posted May 2, 2014 Author Posted May 2, 2014 I am not enrolled on any course. At the age of 73 I think perhaps I am a bit too old! I am just trying to find the answer to this puzzling question. I have tried the site you mention but nobody seems able to help.
TakeruK Posted May 2, 2014 Posted May 2, 2014 I like to give people the benefit of the doubt, so I believe you. Unfortunately, I think this topic is very advanced and I cannot answer your question. To be honest, although the words are familiar, I don't really know what it is asking! And I have taken two general relativity courses with my physics degree (although this subject was definitely one of my weaker points). The best people to help you would be graduate students or advanced undergraduate students in Physics who are studying this topic. Not many of them frequent these forums though and I still think physicsforums.com would have been your best chance (since the people with the knowledge and the inclination to help would be there). But since that didn't work, perhaps you might try one of the following: 1. Quora http://www.quora.com/Physics 2. StackExchange: http://physics.stackexchange.com/ Finally, I think it is impressive that you are committed to lifelong learning! At my undergraduate school, all regular college courses (that don't have limited spaces) are offered for free for people over 65 years of age. Maybe you can check if your local college/university offers this and perhaps taking a course in relativity can answer this question and any others!
hwl Posted May 7, 2014 Author Posted May 7, 2014 Thanks for your help. I will try the sites you mention. I have several relativity text books but not one of them deals with this question. I have been searching for the answer for quite a long time now. It is an important question because this field does not seem to fit in with the rest of Einstein's theory - which is concerning!
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