crazyhappy Posted April 15, 2013 Posted April 15, 2013 I'm supposed to turn in a proposal for a work on Eng lit 1700 to present. I was going to present a paper on George MacDonald's Lilith, but then I realized he is Scottish. Would this work? Is he considered a writer of English literature? thanks!
champagne Posted April 15, 2013 Posted April 15, 2013 I'm American Lit., but I'd say if Oscar Wilde is considered English Lit. then why not George MacDonald? I realize there's probably a lot of logical fallacy in this thought process, so I would defer to more accomplished experts than I. crazyhappy 1
blueberryscone Posted April 15, 2013 Posted April 15, 2013 I think he's squarely in the canon (though I'm used to seeing "English" as a catch-all for "British" when paired with "literature"). Lots of decidedly English writers drew on his work, and I'd put him in the pantheon. crazyhappy 1
crazyhappy Posted April 15, 2013 Author Posted April 15, 2013 Thanks, that's what I thought when I originally planned this, but then I had a moment of panic!
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