Loric Posted December 29, 2013 Posted December 29, 2013 And making many up too! 8000 years ago western culture did not exist in any comparable manner to what it is today.
dfindley Posted December 29, 2013 Author Posted December 29, 2013 wait a minute... if we go by catwomsns definition, then isnt that essentially saying that there is no racism in the US at all? -that ypud luterally need something like apartheid for there to be 'racism'? so, even as a white male, i can make all the racist commentary i want and still not technically (or academically,) racist? ...ya thats still pretty stupid. talk about abusing 'academia' to set standards.
dfindley Posted December 29, 2013 Author Posted December 29, 2013 (edited) edit Edited December 29, 2013 by dfindley
MatintaP Posted December 29, 2013 Posted December 29, 2013 That more men are killed in homicides than women does not mean they are killed in virtue of their being men and/or because they do not comply with their gender-role as men. Women, when victims of homicides, are largely killed because they are women OR because they break some norm of womanhood. For instance, when they are killed because of adultery or when they are raped. Yes, I am speaking politically, though again I fail to see why that is coextensive with "less objectively." If I have a political stance, it is because I deem it justified and more or less (never absolutely) objective and right. And so I defend it. By western civilization, I meant broadly ancient Middle Eastern and Greek history. Though really, I could have said World History and mysogyny would still be as old as speech. Sol_Barber 1
Loric Posted December 29, 2013 Posted December 29, 2013 But that's not true as there are repeatedly world cultures which are not based on a patriarchal system and no "systematic" oppression of women exists, therefor by your own definition they can't be misogynistic or sexist. Sol_Barber and HansK2012 1 1
Greenwood16 Posted December 30, 2013 Posted December 30, 2013 (edited) What does? The general disagreement or the distaste for academic language? Because the latter isn't exactly uncommon. Sorry. I was agreeing with you. This whole conversation seems rather silly; we are dealing with a needless twisting of a common definition. Edited December 30, 2013 by Greenwood16
Loric Posted December 30, 2013 Posted December 30, 2013 Anyone willing to abuse language to such a severe degree is not entitled to any say on the matter. HansK2012, Ryura, TheVineyard and 1 other 1 3
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