Without getting too off topic, this post interests me, because I have always had trouble understanding where the line between moral realism and anti-realism lies; it seems that the line is not clearly drawn, though many philosophers tell us clearly enough where they draw the line. For example, if I say "There are no moral facts, but various moral interpretations are biological/psychological/sociological facts," am I a realist or an anti-realist? If someone says to me "X is absolutely wrong," I would reply "No: there are no absolute moral facts"; moral facts in that sense are not real, and belief in them is based on an error. But if someone said to me that moral talk is meaningless, I would say "No: moral interpretations tell us a lot about human beings and human life, understood as symptoms." In other words, moral interpretations are the result of much that can be considered fact, and for that reason they tell us a lot; but these interpretations themselves often contradict fact, and to that extent are errors. Is this realism or anti-realism?